I thought "naturally have a lower value" implied that there is something about foreclosure itself that reduces the value of a home. I don't think this is true. Rather, I think that foreclosure is covariant with things that reduce the value of homes. So I wanted to clarify that point. That's what I meant by disagreeing with the quoted statement.
Ok, I guess that is just a question of semantics. I likely could have phrased it better but the underlying point still stands that an increase in foreclosed homes will lower the overall home value in an area for the reasons we both listed.
